2. The mouth to nose technique for administering artificial ventilation is effective on which of the following victims? The victim who is breathing very slowly The victim who is very young The victim who has extensive facial injuries Both 2 and 3 above
3. When using the back pressure/arm lift technique for administering artificial ventilation, you should repeat the cycle how many times per minute? 10 to 12 8 to 10 6 to 8 4 to 6
4. CPR should be started within how many minutes of the onset of cardiac arrest? 6 5 4 3
5. When administering CPR, you should place your hands on what area of the victims chest? On the upper part of the sternum About 1 inch below the sternum Above the tip of the sternum On the tip of the sternum
6. When using the one-rescuer CPR technique, you should administer how many compressions per minute? 60 to 80 40 to 60 20 to 40 10 to 20
7. When using the one rescuer CPR technique, you should give how many ventilations after each set of compressions? One Two Three Four
8. When using the two rescuer CPR technique, you should use what ratio of compressions to ventilations? 1 to 5 5 to 1 10 to 4 4 to 10
9. Which of the following structural components is the backbone of a ship? Stringer Prow Stem Keel
10. Which of the following structural components divides the interior of a ship into compartments? Longitudinals Bulkheads Strakes Gunwales
11. Which of the following structural components form the ships hull? Longitudinals Bulkheads Strakes Gunwales
12. The vertical distance from the bottom of the keel to the waterline of the ship is identified by what nautical term? Freeboard Draft Strake Void
13. Which of the following structural components support decks? Athwartships deck beams Fore and aft deck girders Stanchions All of the above
14. The freeing ports that let water run off during heavy weather are identified by which of the following terms? Companionways Bulwarks Scuppers Flats
15. Which of the following terms defines the first complete deck below the main deck? First deck Second deck Third deck Fourth deck
16. The device that bears up tight on wedges and holds watertight doors closed is identified by which of the following terms? Dogs Scuttle Coamings Belaying pins
17. Which of the following terms defines the horizontal openings for access through decks? Doors Manholes Hatches Scuttles
18. Which of the following terms defines the solid part of a ship above the main deck? Superstructure Upper Deck Forecastle
19. Which of the following is a type of mast? Mizzenmast Mainmast Foremast All of the above
20. What is the purpose of running rigging? for stays and shroud support to support stacks to hoist, lower, or control booms or boats to support the mast
21. Commissioned ships of the U.S. Navy fly a commission pennant that is secured to what point? the forecastle aft of the fantail to a pigstick and hoisted to a truck level adjacent to the bridge
22. A petty officer receives general authority from what document? U.S. Navy SORM U.S. Navy Regulations UCMJ Letter of Appointment
23. A petty officer receives organizational authority from what document? U.S. Navy SORM U.S. Navy Regulations UCMJ Letter of Appointment
24. Any order imposing punishment outside the framework of the UCMJ is unlawful? True False
25. A petty officer can take certain measures to correct minor infractions under which of the following articles of the UCMJ? 12 13 14 15
26. EMI is classified as what type of corrective action? General Punitive Non Punitive Physical
27. EMI can be assigned for what maximum number of hours per day? 1 2 3 4
28. The purpose of EMI is to correct a training deficiency and deprive normal liberty? True False
29. EMI can NOT be assigne and conducted on the Sabbath? True False
30. Authority to assign EMI may be delegated to which of the following lowest levels? E-6 E-7 Junior Officer Department Head
31. A privilege is a benefit provided for the convenience or enjoyment of an individual? True False
32. CMEO is an equal opportunity management system controlled primarily at which of the following levels? Command Secretary of Defense Secretary of the Navy CNO
33. Which of the following supervisors supports the Navy's Equal Opportunity program? The one who relates positively and directly with all people equally The one who only listens to one point of view The one who stereotypes people The one who feels it necessary to intimidate some people to acheive goals
34. To manage and supervise people effectively, you must have which of the following leadership skills? The ability to ignore conflicts among various groups The ability to listen to and understand what people have to say The ability to place people in correct racial, ethnic, and religious categories The ability to substitute generalized ideas about people when you aren't shure of their motives
35. You should conduct career information interviews with junior personnel for which of the following purposes? Inform them about the Navy Inform the of their benefits both 1 and 2 to meet requirements of the career retention program
36. Which of the following types of reenlistment applies to personnel who desire to convert to a critically undermanned rating? Regular Guard III STAR SCORE
37. Which of the following types of reenlistment offers guaranteed advancement to petty officer second class for qualified personnel after completion of C school? STAR SCORE Both 1 and 2 Guard III
38. When, if ever, does SGLI coverage terminate after separation from active duty? 120 days 180 days 360 days Never
39. Which of the following organizations offers the only supplemental insurance endorsed by the Navy? Red Cross Navy Mutual Aid Society Navy League Navy Relief Society
40. When, if ever, are you allowed MALT payments? When you use government transportation When you travel by privately owned vehicle during PCS move When you travel by privately owned vehicle while on TAD orders Never
41. If you die on active duty, your spouse would receive a lump sum payment of $3,000 in which of the following payments? Death Gratuity SGLI DIC Social Security
42. A person who has 5 years and 11 months of active military service, reenlists for a period of six years. This person could reenlist for an SRB zone B bonus at the end of his obligated service? True False
43. Which of the following educational programs provides 75% of the tuition cost for active duty personnel regardless of rank, paygrade, or length of service? SOC SOCNAV DANTES TA
44. Which of the following programs enables personnel to achieve journeyman status in recognized civilian trades? National Apprenticeship Program Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support Servicemembers Opportunity College Program for Afloat College Education
45. A CPO serving on active duty with 17 years of service is eligible for which of the following officer programs? LDO CWO BOOST All of the above
46. A married 20 year old petty officer second class, with 12 years of education, is eligible for which of the following officer programs? Direct commission U.S. Naval Academy BOOST LDO
47. A dependent parent of an active duty sailor qualifies for CHAMPUS benefits? True False
48. A dependent parent-in-law of an active duty service member qualifies for treatment under the Uniformed Services Health Benefits Program? True False
49. The maximum CHAMPUS deductible a service member with a wife and 6 children would have to pay is which of the following amounts? $150 per person $300 per person $150 per family $300 per family
50. Which of the following amounts is the CHAMPUS catastrophic cap for retired service members? $150 $300 $1,000 $10,000
Score = Correct answers: