2. Equpment or spaces should be labeled as hazardous if noise is produced at which of the following sound levels? 80db 110db 150db Both 2 and 3
3. A worker should wear double hearing protection when working around noise sources above what prescribed sound level? 94db 100db 104db 140db
4. When protective devices do not provide noise reduction to a level below 84db, which of the following actions should be taken? Secure noisy equipment Reduce Exposure time Remove personnel from area Reduce the number of personnel operating the equipment
5. Supervisors and visitors who are in the vicinity of eye-hazardous operations are required to wear protective equipment? True False
6. In areas where personnel may be exposed to corrosive materials, which of the following items must be available? protective eyewear eyewash facilities warning signs each of the above
7. Personnel just passing through an eye hazard area do NOT need eye protection as long as they keep moving? True False
8. Which of the following contaminants is formed from condensation of vaporized solids? fumes Dust Smoke Mist
9. Which of the following contaminants results from the incomplete combustion of coal, wood and oil? Fumes Dust Smoke Mist
10. Fine liquid droplets suspended in air by condensation or atomization will cause which of the following contaminants? fumes dust smoke mist
11. Small solid particles created by the breaking up of larger particles by machine shop tools will cause which of the following contaminants? fumes dust smoke mist
12. Which of the following methods affords the best personnel protection from industrial respiratory hazards? Exhaust ventilation systems Airtight working spaces Surgical masks Respirators
13. When, if ever, would a surgical mask be considered as adequate for industrial respiratory protection? During fueling ops While using cleaning solvents While spray painting Never
14. An air purifying type of respirator can be used in a space that has insufficient oxygen? True False
15. To maintain public confidence in its integrity, all naval personnel must comply with the standards of conduct and professional ethics? True False
16. If you disclose information about a person to unauthorized personnel, you could be fined up to what maximum amount? $5,000 $3,000 $10,000 $1,000
17. The guidance and policy for making sure that equal opportunity works rests with what office? CMC CO CNO SECNAV
18. Which of the following persons is responsible for making equal opportunity a reality with a command? CO XO Operations Officer CMC
19. Your performance evaluation does not reflect your attitude toward and your conduct in support of the Navy's equal opportunity program? True False
20. If a sailor takes part in insensitive practices, he receives counseling on treating people equally. If counseling isn't effective, what action, if any, may take place? Administrative action only Disciplinary action only Both 1 and 2 None
21. On what basis should supervisors assign duties such as food service and compartment cleaning? skills and abilities seniority A fair, rotational basis Time in service
22. The Department of the Navy sets the requirements for advancement for paygrades E-1 thru E-9. Which of the following is the determining factor in advancement? A vacancy Having a high multiple Passing the exam All of the above
23. Navy personnel are prohibited from taking part in a civil rights demonstration under which of the following circumstances? When the demonstration occurs during duty hours While they are in uniform When the demonstrations occur on a military reservation Each of the above
24. If you cannot resolve a complaint among the personnel involved, you can attach a written complaint to a special request chit and forward it through the chain of command. You must do this within 5 days? True False
25. Which of the following personnel can be victims of sexual harassment? Men only Women only Both men and women
26. Which of the following phrases describes sexual harassment? Unwelcome sexual advances Requests for sexual favors Verbal or physical conduct that is sexual in nature Each of the above
27. Someone in a command position makes sexual advances towards you, making it impossible to do your job. You are being sexually harassed? True False
28. Which of the following is an example of a campaign or service award? Medical scientific societies Silver life saving medal Good conduct medal Navy "E"
29. What is the maximum number of ribbons that may be worn in each row? 5 2 3 4
30. What means of identification must you carry with you at all times? Drivers license Military ID Liberty Card Copy of orders
31. Under which of the following circumstances may you surrender your ID card? To show a change in rank To correct an error To effect a name change All of the above
32. Which of the following is the purpose of the Military ID card under article 17 of the Geneva convention? A means of identification and casualty reporting As a means of grave registration for members who die in a combat zone Both 1 and 2 As a means of ID for prisoners of war
33. While on active duty you must wear your ID tags under which of the following conditions? In time of war When engaged in flight operations When prescribed by the CNO All of the above
34. What type of information is found on ID tags? Last Name, First Name, Middle Initial SSN, Blood Type, RH Factor Religious preference All of the above
35. According to grooming standards for men, how many rings per hand may be worn? 1 2 3 As many as they wish
36. According to grooming standards for women, what is the maximum length of fingernails from the tip of the finger? 1 inch 1/2 inch 3/4 inch 1/4 inch
37. Enlisted women E-6 and below are authorized to wear ball type earrings of what size and color? 6mm, gold 6mm, silver 5mm, gold 5mm, silver
38. When personnel are in ranks, the chest of one person and the back of the person ahead should be what distance apart? 20 inches 30 inches 40 inches 50 inches
39. A pace consists of a full step of what length for men and women? 18 inches; 16 inches 24 inches; 18 inches 30 inches; 24 inches 36 inches; 30 inches
40. Which of the following drill positions is the basic military position? Rest At Ease Attention Parade Rest
41. Talk is permitted when you are in which of the following formation positions? Rest Parade Rest At ease Attention
42. How many movements are used to perform the about face command? 5 2 3 4
43. When executing the command "fall-in" the squad forms in line on which of the following persons? Instructor Squad leader Standard bearer Company commander
44. Personnel in formation align themselves with which of the following persons? Guide Leader Each Other Formation Director
45. After the command "dress, right, dress", a formation returns to the attention positiion on which of the following commands? cover extend attention Ready, on the word Front
46. When the command "Close Ranks" is given to members in formation, the fourth rank moves how many paces forward? 1 2 3 4
47. Who must ensure that within a reasonable amount of time of the report of an offense, that the accused is fully advised of his or her rights concerning a possible NJP? Legal Officer CMAA Officer contemplating imposing NJP Department Head/Division Officer
48. Your rights are found under which UCMJ article? 15 31 37 38
49. The preliminary inquiry officer completes what section of the NAVPERS 1626/7? C E G I
50. Under article 15 of the UCMJ, the CO has how many punishments identified that he or she can impose at mast? 3 6 9 12
Score = Correct answers: