2. Arrest in quarters may only be imposed on which of the following Navy personnel? E-1 thru E-9 W2-W4 O-1 thru O-10 both 2 and 3 above
3. Confinement on bread and water has a maximum duration of how many days? 1 2 3 4
4. Which of the following punishments is considered the most severe form of NJP? Correctional Custody Reduction in Grade Forfeiture of pay Restriction
5. Under article 15 of the UCMJ, you have how many days to appeal the punishment awarded to you if you feel that it was unjust or disproportionate? 5 10 15 20
6. Which of the following terms describes the Navy's recognition that drug and alcohol abuse is incompatible with the Navy's effort to instill pride and professionalism? Zero defects Zero tolerance Screening with Meaning Self Referals Preferable
7. Why has the Navy taken a firm stand against drug abuse? Drug abuse undermines combined readiness Drug abuse is costly in lost man hours Drug abuse causes a loss of morale and Esprit de Corps Each of the above
8. From the list below which is NOT an example of a privelige? Base parking Base or ship library Normal Liberty Exchange of duty
9. Withholding of a privelige rests with which of the following authorities? The person in charge of the work center The person that grants the privilege The CMAA The OOD
10. "Authority should be delegated to the lowest level of competence commensurate with the subordinate's assigned responsibility and capabilities" means which of the following people is accountable for the performance of a task? CO Division Officer Petty Officer assigning the task Subordinate performing the task
11. Your responsibility as a petty officer end when you are on liberty? True False
12. When an enlisted person violates a regulation in the presence of both an officer and a petty officer, who is responsible for correcting the violator? Master at arms Officer Petty Officer CPO
13. Except for a major offense, a person should be put on report only as a last resort? True False
14. When placing a person on report, you may orally notify the chain of command? True False
15. The results of a preliminary inquiry of an alleged offense are given to which person? Accuser XO MAA CMC
16. Under article 31 of the UCMJ, special caution is cited for which of the following areas? Preservation of the accused's rights Right to see the results of the inquiry Preservation of the identity of the accuser Communications with the accuser
17. Who decides which type of court-martial to award? Accuser Accused XO CO
18. The pursuit of an environment free from discrimination is an element of leadership? True False
19. The Command Managed Equal Opportunity program directs the command to take which of the following actions? Create and maintain a positive equal opportunity climate with the command Identify and resolve equal opportunity/sexual harassment problems and concerns Ensure that merit, ability, performance, and potential are the only factors that affect individual promotion, training, duty assignments, and any other action All of the above
20. A command with 250 military personnel must have at least how many command training team (CTT) members? Five Two Three Four
21. Which of the following statements concerning Navy Rights and Responsibilities workshops is NOT correct? All personnel must attend an NR&R workshop within 90 days of reporting to a new permanent duty station Commands must conduct NR&R training frequently enough to keep the class size below 20 people Lesson topics for NR&R workshops are locally prepared Commands hold an annual all hands NR&R workshop
22. Which of the following factors is/are used when gathering command demographic information? Age Gender Race All of the above
23. What term identifies the port and starboard halves of a yard? Yardarms Pigstick Guff Peak
24. The national ensign is flown from what part of a ship when it is anchored or moored? Jackstaff Flagstaff Pigstick Peak
25. What is the additional ship control space used by the squadron commander or admiral called? Signal bridge Main control Flag bridge Bridge wind
26. In what part of a ship is main control normally located? Chart house Secondary Conn Combat Information Center Boiler or machinery space
27. Ships of the U.S. Navy are divided into how many categories? 1 2 3 4
28. How many types of ships are included in the warship category? 5 6 7 8
29. What type of ship is the center of a modern naval task force or task group? Aircraft carrier Destroyer Cruiser Submarine
30. Approximately how many aircraft are embarked on Nimitz class Carriers? 70 75 80 85
31. What class of cruiser is designated as battle force capable? Ticonderoga Spruance Arleigh Burke
32. Which of the following is a principle mission of a destroyer? Operate offensively against subs and surface ships Operate defensively against subs and surface ships Both 1 and 2 Operate short range attack against all aircraft
33. What class destroyer represents a return to all steel construction? Kidd class Spruance class Arleigh Burke class
34. Which of the following isn the mission of frigates? Protective screens Open ocean escort and patrol Defensive operations against surface ships Offensive operations against subsurface ships
35. What class of submarines has the quietest operation? Sturgeon Ohio Seawolf
36. The Ohio class ballistic submarine has how many Trident missile tubes? 16 20 24 26
37. Which of the following is one of the most reliable indications of a blocked airway in a conscious person? Inability to speak Cherry red skin color Profuse sweating of the face Partially digested food in the mouth
38. You are assisting a person who is choking. What is the first action you should take? Apply the standing chest thrust to the victim Apply the standing abdominal thrust to the victim Clear the victim's mouth of any food or foreign objects Sharply slap the victim on the back between the shoulder blades
39. What minimum amount of blood loss usually causes a person to go into shock? 1 pint 2 pints 3 pints 4 pints
40. How is arterial bleeding from a cut near the surface of the skin indicated? Spurting dark red blood Steady flow of dark red blood Steady flow of bright red blood Gushing spurts of bright red blood
41. To control bleeding, which of the following methods should you try first? Direct pressure A tourniquet Battle Dressing Pressure Points
42. What is meant by the pressure points in the human body? A place where the artery is protected on all sides by bone or muscle A place where the main artery is close to the skin surface and over a bone A point where an artery crosses between the heart and the wound A point where an artery crosses a joint
43. If the use of a battle dressing is required, who should loosen/remove it? The on-scene leader The Repair Locker Leader A person qualified in first aid Medical personnel
44. Shock will never be serious enough to cause death? True False
45. At which of the following times should you start treatment for shock? As soon as possible after an injury occurs Only when symptoms indicate severe shock Only after other injuries have been treated As soon as unconsciousness occurs
46. What is the basic position for treating shock? Putting the head and feet at the same level Putting the head lower than the feet Putting the feet lower than the head
47. Which of the following Navy personnel are the most frequent victims of suicide? Males between the ages of 25 to 37 in paygrades E-6 and E-8 Males between the ages of 17 to 24 in paygrades E-1 to E-6 Females between the ages of 25 to 37 in paygrades E-6 to E-8 Females between the ages of 17 to 24 in paygrades E-1 to E-6
48. When working aloft, you can receive a shock from which of the following pieces of gear? Ladders Guy wires Metal fittings All of the above
49. When working over the side, you must wear which of the following pieces of safety equipment? Inherently buoyant life jacket Inflatable life jacket Deck shoes Gloves
50. Accidents involving steam usually occur in what working spaces? Engine rooms only Firerooms only Both 1 and 2 Galley
Score = Correct answers: